Bernau’s chapter states that the Wife of Bath’s Prologue entails “the same source being used to argue strikingly different perspectives.” The chapter ends by stating, “…medieval instances also reveal how such views [of antifeminism] were not only replicated and accepted, but also manipulated, mocked, undermined, and critiqued in their own time.” Do you think the Prologue contains both a challenge to misogynistic tropes while participating in misogynism or is one perspective stronger than the other? 

In Manne’s fourth chapter, she talks about some of the social norms that women are subject to. She states that women are “obligated to give feminine-coded services to someone or other…” and that women are “prohibited from having or taking masculine-coded goods away from dominant men…” What parts of the last half of Le Roman de Silence fall under or break away from these norms?